QC and SG accountability
Selwyn asked how we reconcile the fact that in many places in the OT God says that some things are to be a "statute forever" with the fact that we are no longer required to keep the Mosaic law.
We can answer this at different levels:
It is clear that when Jesus says that, "until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." (Mt 5:18) and just before that says (Mt 5:17) that he came to fulfill and not to abolish the law, that His idea of the permanence of the law is fulfilled in Himself. The law and promises point to the reality of Jesus (Heb 10:1).
On another level we should consider what "forever" means in the Mosaic law. Very often the phrase "a statute forever" is said to apply "throughout your generations" or "to his offspring". This would imply that as long as an inheritable priesthood is in existence, the statute will stand. "Forever" does not then mean "for all of eternity", for then we would be continuing the Mosaic sacrifices in heaven. So we have to interpret "forever" in the light of clear teaching of scripture that the law is temporary
The immediate application to us is that we must not imagine that we can somehow be better Christians if we follow the Mosaic law. One of the key themes of Galatians is that, "by works of the law no one will be justified." (Gal 2:16). Acts 21:26 makes it clear that the apostles were willing to compromise in most aspects of Gentiles following the Mosaic law, only requiring that Gentile converts follow the aspects of the law to avoid the parts potentially causing the greatest offence to their Jewish brethren.
Winnie and I mentioned situations where the best way forward in certain situations involving non-Christians appeared to be to do things out of God's best well (e.g. encouraging divorce in a loveless and parasitic relationship, or preferring a single parent to take care of a child rather than both parents when one parent has another wife/family). We said we would look beyond the immediate family issues to address the individual's needs (cf. the Samaritan woman in John 4).
Then we asked whether God sees the man and woman in civil unions truly as "husband" and "wife" even though the union was not made consciously before God. The "one flesh" verses (Gen 2:24, Matt 19:5-6, Mk 10:8, 1 Cor 6:515, Eph 5:31) apply equally to Christians and non-Christians, and
I Cor 7:12ff clearly refers to spouses in non-Christian marriages as "husband" and "wife.
Marriage is the union of one man and one woman (i.g. "gay marriage" is an oxymoron - speak rather of "same sex unions") witnessed by a community in which the marriage is expressed.
We can answer this at different levels:
It is clear that when Jesus says that, "until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." (Mt 5:18) and just before that says (Mt 5:17) that he came to fulfill and not to abolish the law, that His idea of the permanence of the law is fulfilled in Himself. The law and promises point to the reality of Jesus (Heb 10:1).
On another level we should consider what "forever" means in the Mosaic law. Very often the phrase "a statute forever" is said to apply "throughout your generations" or "to his offspring". This would imply that as long as an inheritable priesthood is in existence, the statute will stand. "Forever" does not then mean "for all of eternity", for then we would be continuing the Mosaic sacrifices in heaven. So we have to interpret "forever" in the light of clear teaching of scripture that the law is temporary
The immediate application to us is that we must not imagine that we can somehow be better Christians if we follow the Mosaic law. One of the key themes of Galatians is that, "by works of the law no one will be justified." (Gal 2:16). Acts 21:26 makes it clear that the apostles were willing to compromise in most aspects of Gentiles following the Mosaic law, only requiring that Gentile converts follow the aspects of the law to avoid the parts potentially causing the greatest offence to their Jewish brethren.
Winnie and I mentioned situations where the best way forward in certain situations involving non-Christians appeared to be to do things out of God's best well (e.g. encouraging divorce in a loveless and parasitic relationship, or preferring a single parent to take care of a child rather than both parents when one parent has another wife/family). We said we would look beyond the immediate family issues to address the individual's needs (cf. the Samaritan woman in John 4).
Then we asked whether God sees the man and woman in civil unions truly as "husband" and "wife" even though the union was not made consciously before God. The "one flesh" verses (Gen 2:24, Matt 19:5-6, Mk 10:8, 1 Cor 6:515, Eph 5:31) apply equally to Christians and non-Christians, and
I Cor 7:12ff clearly refers to spouses in non-Christian marriages as "husband" and "wife.
Marriage is the union of one man and one woman (i.g. "gay marriage" is an oxymoron - speak rather of "same sex unions") witnessed by a community in which the marriage is expressed.
Comments
Post a Comment